Previous Year Papers (PYPs)

UGC-NET-Junior Research Fellowship & Assistant Professor Exam Geography,

December 2018

PAPER-II

Note: This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which one of the following groups of topographical features is the product of erosional process?

A. Eskers, Fiords, V-shaped valley, Seifs

B. Cirque, Arete, Playa, Stack

C. Moraine, Barchan, Pinnacle, Wave-built platform

D. Levees, Stalagmites, Monodnocks, Drum-lins

2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Plate margins and volcanic zones are closely related with each other.

Reason (R): Most of the volcanic zones are located along convergent late boundaries.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

3. The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is known as:

A. Barysphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Hydrosphere

D. Asthenosphere

4. Geologically, the oldest rocks in India are from

A. Dharwar region of Karnataka

B. Aravali region of Rajasthan

C. Vindhyan region of Madhya Pradesh

D. Siwalik region of Punjab

5. Which one of the following is responsible for Global Change in the sea-level?

A. Isostatic

B. Climatic

C. Eustatic

D. Diastrophic

6. Which of the following groups of scholars stressed on the role of lateral erosion by streams in the formation of pediments?

A. McGee, Paige, Black welder

B. McGee, Blackwelder, Johnson

C. Paige, Johnson, Lawson

D. Paige, Blackwelder, Johnson

7. The Two-cycle Theory on the origin of limestone caverns was proposed by

A. Swinerton

B. Davis

C. Malott

D. Gardner

8. Which of the following features is formed due to tectonic forces?

A. Hanging valley

B. U-shaped valley

C. Blind valley

D. Rift valley

9. Conrad discontinuity is found between:

A. Outer and Inner core

B. Sial and Sima

C. Sima and Nife

D. Upper mantle and Lower mantle

11. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) causes human skin cancer?

A. Gamma rays

B. Ultraviolet radiation

C. Micro waves

D. Radio waves

12. Which one of the following is required calories of heat to increase temperature by 10 for 1 gram of water?

A. I calorie

B. 10 calories

C. 32 calories

D. 5 calories

13. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): During an equinox, the length of daylight is 12 hours everywhere on the Earth.

Reason (R): The circle of illumination passes directly through the poles, thus dividing the lines of latitude in the middle.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Evaporation from water bodies is greater than that of land surfaces.

Reason (R): Energy is not required to evaporate water.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Low moisture content in air leads to the formation of towering storm clouds.

Reason (R): The energy transfer from equator to poles takes place through evaporation and condensation.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

16. Identify the correct sequence of cloud formation in ascending order.

A. Cumulus, Stratus, Cirrostratus, Alto cumulus

B. Altocumulus, Stratus, Cumulus, Cirro stratus

C. Stratus, Cumulus, Altocumulus, Cirro stratus

D. Cumulus, Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirro stratus

18. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Wind is the result of only the vertical differences in atmospheric pressure.

Reason (R): Wind is nature's attempt to balance inequalities in air pressure.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

19. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Mid-latitude cyclones are low-pressure systems travelling from east to west across the middle latitudes in both hemispheres.

Reason (R): Most mid-latitude cyclones have a cold front and a warm front.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): The most stable conditions occur during a temperature inversion, when the temperature actually increases with height.

Reason (R): Temperature inversion leads to greater vertical air movement.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

21. Which one of the following coasts has narrow continental shelf?

A. China

B. Canada

C. Northern Australia

D. Western coast of South America

22. Which one of the following rocks is associated with "Cratons"?

A. Granite

B. Conglomerate

C. Slate

D. Phyllite

24. Which one of the following numbers denotes major zoo-geographical regions of the world established by A.R. Wallace?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

25. Which one of the following marine features is not supporting for speedy growth of coral reefs?

A. Close to island shore

B. Near to small channel

C. Around a lagoon

D. Guyots and seamounts

26. Which one of the following is not an example of "natural air pollution"?

A. Ash from volcanic eruptions

B. Nuclear test

C. Spores released by plants

D. Windblown dust

27. Which one of the following components is not taken into consideration by the Environmental Pollution Assessment (EPA) of US to calculate the Air Quality Index (AQI)?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Ground-level ozone

C. Particulate matter

D. Sulphur dioxide

29. Which one of the following is correct related to a major wave of extinction?

A. When man was still predominantly a hunter and gatherer

B. During the Iron Age

C. During the Bronze Age

D. During the Post-Industrial Revolution

30. Identify the correct sequence of vegetation belts at different altitudes in the equatorial mountains of East Africa in descending order (top to bottom).

A. Lowland Forest, Bamboo Zone, Ericaceous Belt, Afro-Alpine Belt

B. Afro-Alpine Belt. Ericaceous Belt, Bamboo Zone, Lowland Forest

C. Afro-Alpine Belt, Ericaceous Belt, Lowland Forest, Bamboo Zone

D. Bamboo Zone. Lowland Forest, Ericaceous Belt, Afro-Alpine Belt

31. Nomothetic approach in emphasizes upon geography

A. Empirical study

B. Inductive study

C. Law making study

D.Ideographic study

32. The concept of paradigm was propounded by:

A. Immanuel Kant

B. Peter Haggett

C. Peet

D. Kuhn

34. The famous text on classical astronomy entitled "Almagest" was authored by

A. Eratosthenes

B. Hipparchus

C. Ptolemy

D. Strabo

36. Who among the following geographers correlated the colour of ocean water and its salinity?

A. Al-Masudi

B. Ibn-Sina

C. Ibn-Khaldun

D. Al-Maqdisi

37. Who amongst the following scholars has propounded the concept of Time-Space Geography?

A. Hagerstrand

B. Harvey

C. Haggett

D. Huntington

38. Who amongst the following has authored the book A Hundred Years of Geography"?

A. Huxley

B. Galois B.

C. Harrison-Church R.J.

D. Freeman T.W.

39. Who amongst the following developed the concept of mental map?

A. Gould and White

B. Downs and Stea

C. Boulding and Hagerstrand

D. Saarinen

41. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Central Business District (CBD) of a city has high concentration of wholesale stores, offices and cultural and recreational activities.

Reason (R): Prices and demand of real estate increases as distance towards CBD reduces.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

42. Which one of the following statements correctly explains the difference between Gravity model and Potential model?

A. Gravity model does not take distances into account, while Potential model takes distances into account.

B. Gravity model makes no provision for size of places, while Potential model considers size of places.

C. Gravity model deals with only two places at a time, while Potential model accounts for interactions between many places.

D. Both Gravity model and Potential model are the same.

44. Which one of the following Union Territories was the most urbanised one in 2011?

A. Lakshadweep

B. Daman and Diu

C. Pondicherry

D. NCT of Delhi

49. Which one of the following groups of states in India recorded more than 40 per cent of urban population as per 2011 census?

A. Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat

B. Goa, Mizoram, Sikkim

C. Puducherry, Goa, Nagaland

D. Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Tripura

50. Which one of the following demographic parameters represents the population growth rate?

A. Natural change and crude birth rate

B. Natural change and net migration

C. Net migration and fertility rate

D. Net migration and birth rate

51. Which one of the following factors of a boundary determination between the areas of two competing firms is correct, if the gradients of delivered price and freight rate of firm * s degrees production is same?

A. Raw material available

B. Output of firm

C. Closer distance from the location of firms

D. Price at plant/firm

52. Which one of the following authors initiated concept of 'Isodapanes' in space-economy?

A. E. Hoover

B. A. Losch

C. T. Plander

D. A. Weber

53. With the outbreak of World War II, the interest in political geography was focussed on

A. Immediate problems of international relations

B. Industry related development

C. Economic development issues

D. Regional cooperation with the neighbouring countries

54. Which of the following can be categorized as a primary activity?

A. Coal mining

B. Teaching

C. Handicraft

D. Car manufacturing

55. Rural house is an index of the

A. Environment

B. Racial Element

C. Fashion and Style

D. Modern Architectural Design

56. Which one of the following economic princi ples is correct for organisation of settlements based on K = 4 presented in the Christaller's central place model?

A. Marketing

B. Administrative

C. Transport

D. Agriculture activities

58. Which one of the following is correct for the cost-input graph of industrial production system, where point of profit maximising output is

A. Marginal cost is not equal to marginal revenue

B. Marginal cost equals marginal revenue

C. Average cost equals average revenue

D. Total cost equals total revenue

60. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Most transportation networks begin as branching networks.

Reason (R): Because the first priority of the transport agencies that build them is generally to get all points connected.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

61. Which one of the following terms is generally used to express the relationship between cultural groups and their natural environment?

A. Cultural ecology

B. Cultural convergence

C. Cultural diffusion

D. Cultural hearth

62. Which one of the following groups of states of India was ranked as top three States in proportion of Scheduled Tribes population to total population according to census 2011?

A. Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland, Jharkhand

B. Mizoram, Bihar, Rajasthan

C. Lakshadweep. Mizoram, Nagaland

D. Nagaland, Rajasthan, Jharkhand

65. Which one of the following subjects/ functions is listed on the Concurrent List in India?

A. Post and Telegraph

B. Defence

C. Price Control

D. Banking

66. The concept of Lebensraum gained popularity in the field of political geography following the publication of

A. Geographical Pivot of History

B. Politische Geographic

C. Making of Political Geography

D. Foreign Affairs

67. The term 'Geopolitics' was coined by

A. Haushofer

B. Kjellen

C. Ratzel

D. Mackinder

68. Which one of the following is the most accurate representative of cultural unit from the highest to the lowest order?

A. Complex, Realm, Region, Trait

B. Realm, Complex. Region, Trait

C. Realm, Region. Complex, Trait

D. Trait, Complex, Region, Realm

69. Who among the following geographers has authored the book "The Geography of State Policies"?

A. R.L. Morrill

B. S.B. Cohen

C. Richard Hartshorne

D. J.R.V. Prescott

70. What percentage share of net tax revenue is now shared by the National Government of India with the States after the acceptance of the recommendations of XIV Finance Commission?

A. 32

B. 28

C. 42

D. 50

72. Which one of the following indices is used to indicate if the optimal location was closer to either raw material source or the market?

A. Material Index

B. Weighted Index

C. Labour Cost Index

D. Relative Spread Index

73. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): The decade of 1990s witnessed urbanisation process speeding up economic growth in India.

Reason (R): The urbanisation process resulted in a growing. shortage of urban services and an overall deterioration in the quality-of-urban-life indices.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

75. During which one of the following Five Year Plans was regional approach to build new towns and prepare master and regional plans. emphasized in India for the first time?

A. Fourth Five Year Plan

B. Third Five Year Plan

C. Sixth Five Year Plan

D. Ninth Five Year Plan

76. For expediting the development of small and medium sized towns, the scheme of Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns (IDMST) was initiated during the

A. Fifth Five Year Plan

B. Sixth Five Year Plan

C. Eighth Five Year Plan

D. Ninth Five Year Plan

77. Which one of the following kinds of towns was not planned and developed during the British Rule in India?

A. Cantonment Towns

B. Model Towns

C. Railway Colonies

D. Hill Stations

78. Which one of the following statements is true about the concept of development?

A. Development is a discrete process

B. Development is a uni-dimensional process

C. Development stands for growth with a change

D. Meaning of development remains the same in time and space.

79. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): The city plans in ancient India were laid down in accordance to some pre conceived ideas, with high standards of public health.

Reason (R): This does not, however, reflect the concern of ancient India for community sanitation and health.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

80. The major objective behind identification of five counter-magnet cities outside the National Capital Region (NCR) was

(i) To further strengthen policies for decent ralisation of economic activities within and outside the NCR.

(ii) To further strengthen policies for decentralisation of population within and outside the NCR.

(iii) To further strengthen the availability of physical infrastructure facilities within and outside the NCR.

(iv) To further strengthen health and medical care services outside the NCR.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

A. (i) and (iii) are correct

B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

C. (i) and (ii) are correct

D. (i), (iii) and dot (iv) are correct

81. Which one of the following is approximate length (in '000 kms) of the Indian Coastline?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

82. Which one of the following is not a major industrial centre?

A. Coimbatore

B. Kolkata

C. Madurai

D. Mumbai

83. Who among the following has classified Indian agriculture into sixty micro-regions, thirteen meso-regions and six macro-regions?

A. Jasbir Singh

B. L. Dudley Stamp

C. S.P. Chatterjee

D. P. Sen-Gupta

84. Which one of the following States in India recorded the highest percentage of decadal growth of population during 2001-2011?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. West Bengal

85. Which one of the following rivers does not form a delta?

A. Mahanadi

B. Cauvery

C. Narmada

D. Krishna

86. Which of the following group of States recorded Santhal tribe population as per census of India, 2011?

A. Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra

B. Gujarat, Bihar, Rajasthan

C. Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal

D. Bihar, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh

90. Which one of the following plateaus is not a part of the South Central Highlands?

A. Maharashtra

B. Malwa

C. Vindhya

D. Chotanagpur

91. Which one of the following variables is correct to divide a universe of 500 students of a class into two by their gender and then take a random sample of the males and a random sample of females?

A. Control variable

B. Independent variable

C. Dependent variable

D. Stratified variable

92. Which one of the following features creates problems in the Satellite Remote Sensing data?

A. Land cover

B. Cloud cover

C. Water cover

D. Vegetation cover

93. Which one of the following processes is the main task for the computer in mapping the geographical data?

A. Data storage

B. Data collection

C. Data visualization

D. Data retrieving and drawing

94. Which one of the following mapping techniques is correct to show delineated areas having different colours?

A. Isopleth

B. Choropleth

C. Chorochromatic

D. Choroschematic

95. Variable Y regresses with variable X with the conditions that overline  =5.50 , overline  =3.50 anc b = 1.50 in the linear regression model (Y= a+bX) , where  and  and means of the respective variables and b refers to gradient of line of Y w.r.t X. Which one of the following values of parameter ‘a’ of the model is correct?

A. 1.75

B. 3.75

C. 4.75

D. -5.75

96. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Nearest neighbour analysis is an approach to the study of point, line and area patterns.

Reason (R): Measurement of distance by comparing the observed mean distances with the expected mean distances between sampled points and their nearest neighbours.

Code:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

97. Which one of the following diagrams represents the occupational structure of population?

A. Isopleth

B. Contour

C. Pie diagram

D. Choropleth

98. Which one of the following aspects could be correctly represented in a contour map?

A. Population distribution

B. Terrain elevation

C. Rock hardness

D. Soil distribution

99. Which one of the following denotes the lines joining equal amount of travel time?

A. Isohaline

B. Isochrone

C. Isoheight

D. Isopleth

100. Which one of the following random sampling techniques becomes more appropriate for homogeneous population groups?

A. Systematic

B. Simple

C. Stratified

D. Proportionate