Previous Year Papers (PYPs)
Previous Year Papers (PYPs)
Previous Year Papers (PYPs)
UGC NET GEOGRAPHY, DECEMBER-2012
PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. Landslides involve
A. Downslope movement of individual rock blocks which is usually not perceptible
B. Rapid perceptible movement of relatively dry mass of earth debris or bed rock
C. Slow to very rapid movement of water saturated rock debris
D. Slow-flowing downslope masses of rock debris saturated with water
2. Which of the following pairs is not a correct match of desert and country/continent?
A. Atacama desert - South America
B. Gobi desert - Central Asia
C. Sonoran West - Asia desert
D. Great Victorian - Australia desert
3. One of the proponents of the turbidity current theory of the origin of submarine canyons was
A. Daly
B. Dana
C. Salis
D. Gregory
4. The term peneplain refers to
A. A level surface formed in the old age of fluvial cycle
B. A level surface formed by wind erosion
C. A plain formed by marine action
D. A plain formed by joining of flood-plains
5. In the process of erosion, the removal of material by solution is called
A. Attrition
B. Corrasion
C. Corrosion
D. Sapping
6. Arrange the solar spectrum in ascending order of its wavelength:
(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Microwaves
(c) X-rays
(d) Television waves
Codes:
A. (d), (c), (b), (a)
B. (a), (c) (d), (b)
C. (c), (a), (b), (d)
D. (b), (c), (a), (d)
7. Energy that is reflected by the atmosphere
A does not heat the atmosphere
B. has a different wavelength than the incoming energy
C. is usually short energy like visible light which does not penetrate the atmosphere
D. heats the atmosphere by absorption.
8. Which one of the following statements about the polar jet stream is not true?
A. It moves northwards during summer
B. It supplies energy to the circulation of surface storms
C. Its location roughly coincides with that of the polar front
D. Its velocity is greater during summer
9. The percentage of water vapour in the air in the tropical regions may be as high as
A. 4 per cent
B. 10 per cent
C. 30 per cent
D. 50 per cent
10. The vertical air flow in an anticyclone results in
A diversion aloft
B. conversion aloft
C. diversion both aloft and at the surface
D. convergence at the surface and divergence aloft
11. The most common salt in the ocean is
A. Calcium chloride
B. Sodium nitrate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Calcium nitrate
12. In the hydrological cycle evaporation is preceded by
A. Clouds
B. Precipitation
C. Heat
D. Condensation
13. Which of the following occupies Trophic Level I in food chain?
A. Bacteria
B. Camivores
C. Primary consumers
D. Plants
14. Which of the following regions is known as the 'carbon sink of the globe?
A. Antarctica
B. Savanna
C. N.W. Europe
D. Tropical rainforest
15. Ecological Niche refers to
A. Interaction between man and environment
B. The functional role of an organism in the ecosystem
C. Interdependence of man and plant
D. None of the above
16. Who among the following expounded the concept that "the present is the key to the past"?
A. Buffon
B. Lyell
C. Hutton
D. Playfair
17. The approach that some of the geographical facts according to Ritter, cannot be explained scientifically, is termed as
A. Ecological
B. Regional
C. Teleological
D. Locational
18. Whose pioneer statement on the scope and method of modern geography, according to Hartshorne, set the direction of geographic thought for the future?
A. Blache
B. Schluter
C. Ratzel
D. Richthofen
19. Who among the following geographers emphasized the predominant role of climate in human life?
A. Geddes
B. Jefferson
C. Huntington
D. Brunhes
20. Who is usually given the credit for establishing the validity of the idea that there was an ice age during which ice sheets covered much of northern Europe?
A. Agassiz
B. Ramsay
C. Jukes
D. Penck
21. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The metropolitan cities are numerically dominated by male adult population.
Reason (R): Migration is age and sex selective.
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is correct, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is correct
22. The percentage of Aged population (60+) to the total population in India lies between
A. 2 - 5
B. 5 - 10
C. 10 - 12
D. 12 – 15
23. Which of the following migration streams experiences the maximum migration in India?
A Rural to Rural
B. Rural to Urban
C. Urban to Urban
D. Urban to Rural
24. Which one of the following describes a projected urbanised world or universal city by the end of 21st Century?
A. Conurbation
B. City-Region
C. Megalopolis
D. Ecumenopolis
25. Which one of the following indicates Random distribution of settlements?
A. 0.49
B. 1.00
C. 1.59
D. 2.15
26. The stretchability of resource refers to
A. The ability to find adequate substitution
B. Susceptibility to destruction
C. Ability to produce greater yields
D. Non-exhaustibility
27. Which one of the following sequences of land use according to Von Thunen's model is correct?
A. Market gardening and fresh milk, firewood and lumber, intensive crop farming
B. Firewood and lumber, intensive crop farming, market gardening and fresh milk
C. Intensive crop farming, market gardening and fresh milk, firewood and lumber
D. Market gardening and fresh milk, intensive crop farming, firewood and lumber
28. Resource creation is the result of
A. interaction of natural and cultural processes
B. interaction of different natural processes
C. interaction of different social processes
D. interaction of different economic processes
29. The final stage in the process of energy resource utilization is
A. Transport
B. Storage
C. Disposal of waste material
D. Conversion
30. Who among the following developed the sequential expansion transport network model?
A. De Souza and Porter
B. Brown and Bracey
C. Myrdal, Seers and Rostow
D. Taaffe, Morrill and Gould
31. The concept of the Geographical Pivot of History was proposed by
A. Mickinder
B. Martin
C. Kropotkin
D. Ratzel
32. Which of the following categories does Chile belong to, according to shape?
A. Fragmented
B. Fragmented cum elongated
C. Elongated
D. Compact cum elongated
33. The number of children dying in the first year of their birth per thousand live birth in a year is called
A. Death rate
B. Standardised mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Life expectancy rate
34. Which one of the following arrangements of States in descending order of literacy rates according to 2011 Census is correct?
A. Kerala, Mizoram, Tripura, Goa
B. Kerala, Goa, Mizoram, Tripura
C. Goa, Kerala, Tripura, Mizoram
D. Mizoram, Tripura, Kerala, Goa
35. Which one of the following is related to Tribal Economy?
A. Intensive cultivation
B. Footloose Industry
C. Mining and Quarrying
D. Shifting cultivation
36. What are the bases of agro-climatic regionalization proposed by the Planning Commission of India?
A. Relief, soil and drainage
B. Rainfall, temperature and cropped area
C. Vegetation, soil and land use
D. Relief, land use and Net sown Area
37. Which category of regions does metropolitan region belongs to?
A. Formal region
B. Functional region
C. Single purpose region
D. Natural region
38. Who among the following attempted division of India into planning regions?
A. O.H.K. Spate
B. L.D. Stamp
C. R.L. Singh
D. R.P. Misra
39. In which of the Five Year Plans regional imbalance was given prominence for the first time?
A First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
40. Which one of the following is not the ingredient of sustainable development?
A. Intergeneration transferability
B. Social Justice
C. Inter-regional Transferability
D. Non-optimal resource utilization
41. The main species of the coniferous forests of the Himalayas between the altitudes 1600 metres and 3300 metres are
A. Cedar, Pine, Sine, Silverfir, Spruce
B. Sagon and Sakhu
C. Sandalwood, Rosewood
D. Oak, Chestnut, Chir, Chil
42. The Bundelkhand plateau covers parts of which two of the following States?
A. Chhattisgarh & Jharkhand
B. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
C. Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh & Chhattisgarh
43. Which of the following places in India ranks second among the coldest inhabited places in the world?
A. Dras
B. Itanagar
C. Manali
D. Mana
44. Which of the following States has the highest percentage of its agricultural area under canal irrigation?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Uttarakhand
D. Uttar Pradesh
45. Which of the following ranges separates the Kashmir Valley from the Indus River Valley?
A. Pir Panjal Range
B. Dhauladhar Range
C. Great Himalayan Range
D. Shivalik Range
46. Which one of the following methods is suitable to represent the proportions of different land uses in a region?
A. Line graph
B. Pie diagram
C. Hythergraph
D. Triangular diagram
47. The dot method of distribution refers to
A. Iconic Model
B. Analogue Model
C. Symbolic Model
D. Graphical Model
48. Which one of the following is a relative measure of dispersion?
A. Standard deviation
B. Quartile deviation
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Range
49. If a map is drawn on RF 1/5500, which one of the following representative fractions will be correct if the map is reduced to half?
A 1/2750
B. 1/11, 000
C. 1/5,000
D. 1/33,000
50. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) NASA is the national acquisition and distribution agency for all satellite data in India.
(2) NASA sends the de-coded data to the NNRMS whose activities are guided by various Standing Committees.
Codes:
A. Only (1) is correct
B. Only (2) is correct
C. Both (1) and (2) are correct
D. Neither (1) nor (2) is correct
PAPER-III
Note: This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Most of the details of our present topography belong to the
A. Pre-Cambrian era
B. Paleozoic era
C. Mesozoic era
D. Cenozoic era
2. If you are sitting on the beach facing the sea on a sunny afternoon, the local wind will be
A. striking your back and continuing to the sea because of sea breeze effect.
B. towards your from the sea because of the sea breeze effect.
C. towards your from the sea because of the lapse rate effect.
D. striking your back and continuing to the sea because of the land breeze effect.
3. The temperature at which water vapours condense, is the
A. Relative humidity
B. Condensation point
C. Dew point
D. Evaporation point
4. Examine the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. The atmospheric air is never completely dry.
2. Water vapour can occupy as much as 4 percent of the atmospheric volume.
3. Water vapour in the atmosphere is always invisible.
Codes:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
5. Chemical weathering is more effective than mechanical weathering in
A. Semiarid region
B. Arid region
C. Coastal region
D. Cool temperate region
6. A drainage system which is not related to the structure of the region where it occurs is called a
A. Radial drainage pattem
B. Trellis drainage pattern
C. Superimposed drainage pattern
D. Dendritic drainage pattern
8. Given below are the two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and other Labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The work of wind as an agent of gradation is not as widespread as that of water. It is effective only in the desert regions of the world where rainfall is scanty and soil particles are loose.
Reason (R): In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) .
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
9. "The Two-Cycle Theory" of the origin of limestone caverns was proposed by
A. Davis
B. Swinerton
C. Gardner
D. Malott
10. All those processes which tend to bring the surface of the lithosphere to a common level are collectively known as
A. Gradation
B. Degradation
C. Aggradation
D. Mass wasting
11. Which one of the following atmospheric layers reflects radio waves that are transmitted from the earth again back to the earth?
A. Mesosphere
B. Ionosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Stratosphere
12. According to 'Single cell circulation model proposed by Hadley, the most important factor causing global atmospheric circulation is
A. subsidence at the equator
B. temperature contrast between equator and pole
C. the jet stream
D. rotation of the earth
13. Which of the following would likely to have the lowest albedo?
A Mirror
B. Fresh snow in the Arctic
C. Moist ploughed soil
D. Thick cloud
14. Given below are the two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): Hurricane cannot develop in the vicinity of equator.
Reason (R): Coriolis force is maximum over the equator.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
15. When sun is shining vertically over tropic of Capricorn?
A. Days and nights are equal over the entire globe.
B. Nights are longer than days in the Southem hemisphere.
C. Nights are equal to 24 hours over the Arctic region.
D. Days and nights are of 12 hour duration over Antarctica.
16. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Evaporation is directly proportional to temperature
B. Evaporation is more over land than ocean
C. Evaporation is higher over warm surface than on cold surface.
D. Evaporation reduces the amount of heat available in the atmosphere thereby reducing the temperature.
18. Pelagic deposits consist of matter derived from algae and are mostly in the form of liquid mud known as
A. Blue mud
B. Ooze
C. Red mud
D. Coral mud
19. The average temperature of the surface water of the oceans is
A. 22 °C
B. 15 °C
C. 26.7 °C
D. 18.6 °C
20. Ecosystem has two components which are
A. Animals and plants
B. Trees and weeds
C. Frogs and men
D. Abiotic and biotic
21. All the ecosystems taken together in a geographical area form a bigger unit called
A. Community
B. Territory
C. Biome
D. Biosphere
22. Which one of the following ocean currents belongs to Indian Ocean?
A. Canary Current
B. Antilles Current
C. Labrador Current
D. Agulhas Current
23. The Westem Coast of Australia records higher salinity due to
A. Ocean currents
B. Wind direction
C. Dry weather condition
D. All the above
24. The highest salinity is found in the
A. Baltic Sea
B. Okhotsk Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea
D. Red Sea
25. Which of the following statements about synecology is correct?
A. It is a study of individual species in relation to its environment.
B. It is a study of complex interrelationship of biotic communities.
C. It is essentially habitat ecology.
D. It is mainly social ecology.
26. Organic deposits made by living or dead organisms that form rock elevation like a ridge are known as
A. Corals
B. Conyons
C. Reefs
D. Guyots
27. Which one of the schools of thought first developed possibilism?
A. German School of Geography
B. Russian School of Geography
C. French School of Geography
D. British School of Geography
28. Which one of the following is not a supporter of the theory of determinism?
A. Wolfgang Hartake
B. R. Hartshorne
C. O.H.K. Spate
D. All the above
29. Who among the following noted first the regularity between the sizes of cities and their rank?
A. Zipf
B. Jefferson
C. Auerbach
D. Christaller
30. Who among the following is an advocate of idealism in geography?
A. Guelke
B. Gilbert
C. Samuels
D. Pocock
31. The statement that a method by which one can rethink the thought of those whose actions one seeks to explain' refers in human geography to the philosophy of
A. Phenomenology
B. Idealism
C. Existentialism
D. Positivism
32. Which among the following was responsible for the radical transformation of spirit and purpose of geography?
A. Post Modernism
B. Humanism
C. Structuralism
D. Quantification
33. Which among the following was one of the forces responsible for continental drift according to Wegner?
A. Tidal Force
B. Convection Currents
C. Tensional Force
D. Compressional force
34. Which one of the following States / Union Territories recorded the highest density of population as per census 2011?
A. Chandigarh
B. West Bengal
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra
35. If economic landscape of a region is dependent on "transport principle' of central place system. with the population size of 4.0 lakh of its highest order town, which one of the following population size of next lower order town is correct?
A. 3.0 lakh
B. 2.0 lakh
C. 1.0 lakh
D. 0.5 lakh
36. Who defined settlement geography first time incorporating the concept of settlement pattern, house types and field system?
A. Meitzen
B. Stone
C. Huntington
D. Trewartha
37. The sparsely populated countries have slow growth of industries because
A. of shortage of skilled labour
B. small population does not provide a good market
C. of both A and B
D. agriculture is more developed than industries
38. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population?
A. Bangladesh
B. Pakistan
C. Sri Lanka
D. India
39. The size of population in lower age group is large in countries where
A. Birth rate is high
B. Birth rate is low
C. Death rate is high
D. Death rate is low
40. The base of the age-sex pyramid is broad and apex is narrow in
A. Developed countries
B. Developing countries
C. Under developed countries
D. None of the above
42. Which one of the following matches in case of shifting cultivation is not correct?
A. Ladang - Indonesia
B. Ray - Vietnam
C. Milpa - Mexico
D. Tamrai - Brazil
43. The polar regions are sparsely populated because
A. The growing season is short owing to low temperature
B. There are no mineral resources
C. The regions are forested
D. Both B and C
44. Which one of the following countries is the major producer of mica?
A. India
B. U.S.A.
C. Brazil
D. China
47. The number of persons expressed in terms of unit area of agricultural land is known as
A. Economic Density
B. Physiological Density
C. Arithmetical Density
D. Agricultural Density
48. Who among the following proposed a grand scheme of natural regions on a global scale by combining physical determinants of plants and animals life?
A Unstead
B. Herbertson
C. Whittlesey
D. Dickinson
49. Which of the following was not mentioned by Brunhes as essential fact of human geography?
A. Facts of unproductive occupation of soil.
B. Facts of plants and animal conquest
C. Facts of destructive exploitation
D. Facts of manufacturing
50. Which one of the following factors is not affecting the voting behaviour?
A. Religious
B. Castes
C. High level of literacy
D. Size of landholdings
51. Which indicator from among the following could be the best indicator of social-wellbeing?
A Population growth rate
B. Literacy rate
C. Life-expectancy
D. Per capita income
52. Who among the followings gave the concept of 'Rimland' theory?
A. A Ratzel
B. O.H.K. Spate
C. Spykman
D. Griffith Taylor
53. Who propounded the theory of Heartland' in political geography?
A. Mackinder
B. Spykman
C. Smith
D. Raiz
54. A functional region is delineated on the basis of
A. Administrative boundaries
B. Field of interactions
C. Isolines
D. Physical divisions
55. Who in census of India applied the 'ternary diagram' for the functional classification of towns in India?
A. P. Padmanabha
B. A.R. Nanda
C. Ashok Mitra
D. Chandrasekhar
57. Who authored the book entitled 'Growth Pole and Growth Centres for Regional Economic Development in India"?
A. Sen and Wanmali
B. Sadasyuk and Sengupta
C. Misra, Rao and Sundaram
D. Rao and Sundaram
58. Which one of the following states recorded the highest decadal growth rate of population between 2001 & 2011 as per census record?
A. Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Arunachal Pradesh
60. Which one of the following rivers does not make a delta?
A. Mahanadi
B. Godavari
C. Tapti
D. Ganga
61. Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Himachal Pradesh?
A. Jhelum
B. Beas
C. Chenab
D. Ravi
64. Which one records the lowest normal temperature in the month of January?
A. Bikaner
B. Banglore
C. Jaisalmer
D. Firozpur
66. Which one of the following states has the lowest percentage of scheduled tribes?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Manipur
C. Mizoram
D. Nagaland
67. Which of the following hills forms the North Eastern edge of the Chhotanagpur Plateau?
A. Rajmahal Hills
B. Mikir Hills
C. Parasnath Hills
D. Javadi Hills
68. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using codes given below:
1. In a Representative Fraction (R.F.), the numerator is always one.
2. In an R.F. Scale, the unit of denominator is always as of the unit of numerator.
3. R.F. is not suitable technique of showing scale on a map.
4. The statement scale, e.g. I em to 1 km is suitable scale on a map.
Codes:
A. 1, 2 and 3 is correct
B. 1, 3 and 4 is correct
C. 2. 3 and 4 is correct
D. 1, 2 and 4 is correct
69. If Representative Fraction (RF) of a map is 1/5000 which is reduced three times, which of the following RF is correct for reduced map
A. 1/2.500
B. 1/1,000
C. 1/15,000
D. 1/25,000
70. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. IRS is the mainstay of National Natural Resources Management System (NNRMS) in India.
2. Development and operational responsibilities of earth observation in India is overseen by the National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA).
Codes:
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are correct
D. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
71. Which one of the following statement is correct in contest of Sten-de-Geer's method used for showing population distribution?
A Rural population is shown by sphere method
B. Urban population is shown by dot method
C. Scale of Cube-roots are used for showing the spheres
D. Spheres occupy bigger space on map.
72. Which one of the following measurements is used for inequality distribution of farmer income subject to their landholding size of an area?
A. Standard Deviation
B. Coefficient of Variation
C. Gini Index
D. Correlation coefficient
73. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Random sampling is called as probability sampling.
(b) Random sampling is done with help of random table.
(c) Landscape elements are generally scattered at random.
Codes:
A. (a) and (b) are correct.
B. (b) and (c) are correct.
C. (a) and (c) are correct.
D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
75. According to Nearest Neighbour Index, what would be the maximum value for the perfect uniform settlement distribution?
A. 0.00
B. 2.15
C. 1.55
D. 2.89
